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If a patient is infertile because of an ovarian defect but still has normal, open Fallopian tubes, why would you not suggest simply treating the patient with the FSH/HMG combination then allowing fertilization to occur naturally, instead of performing in vitro fertilization?

I don't know what you mean by an "ovarian defect" but if it is an ovulation problem that's usually what we would do first.

Arthur L. Wisot, M. D.
Reproductive Partners Medical Group
Redondo Beach, California